WEDNESDAY: 7 December 2022. Morning Paper. Time Allowed: 2 hours.
Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. The paper is made up of fifty (50) multiple choice questions. Each question is allocated two (2) marks.
1. In which of the following Information Technology project stages is the project charter created?
A. Project initiation
B. Project planning
C. Project execution
D. Project monitoring and controlling (2 marks)
2. The phase that runs simultaneously with project execution, thereby ensuring that objectives and project deliverables are met is called?
A. Project execution
B. Project monitoring and controlling
C. Project planning
D. Project initiation (2 marks)
3. Which of the following characteristics is NOT typical of an Information Technology project manager?
A. Managing a temporary activity
B. Possesses in-depth technical knowledge
C. Managing a non-repetitive activity
D. Manages independently of the formal organization (2 marks)
4. Which one of the following is NOT a cause for a project’s performance to require control?
A. Technical problems.
B. Sufficient resources are available when needed.
C. Client requires changes in specifications.
D. Technological breakthroughs affect the project (2 marks)
5. The following are some of the methods used in selecting a project, EXCEPT?
A. Scope management
B. Weighted scoring model
C. Balanced scorecard
D. Focusing on broad organizational needs (2 marks)
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the integrated elements within PRINCE2?
B. Project environment
C. Product description
D. Processes (2 marks)
7. Which of the following is NOT a method of Information Technology project investment appraisal method?
A. Payback period
B. Internal rate of return
C. Profitability index
D. Net tax value (2 marks)
8. What is the name given to an occurrence when Information Technology developers and end users add extra features that were not part of the initial project requirements?
B. Scope creep
C. Feature creep
D. Project stretch (2 marks)
9. Which phase in the SDLC involves end users and Information Technology specialist working together to gather, understand, and document the business requirements for the proposed system?
D. Analysis (2 marks)
10. What is the name given to a method of project implementation where only a select group of people are allowed to use the new system in order to determine if it is working correctly?
D. Direct (2 marks)
11. We have observed that project termination implementation requires that the project personnel and other resources be redistributed to the appropriate places. However, most project managers delay the issue regarding personnel reassignment/release as long as possible. Which one of the following is NOT a reason why the above statement is true?
A. Reluctance to face the interpersonal conflicts that might arise when new assignments and layoffs are announced.
B. Ensure completion of the relevant project tasks.
C. There is a concern that people will lose interest and stop work on the target project as soon as it becomes known that termination is being considered.
D. Concern that team members will try to avoid death by stretching out the work as far as possible. (2 marks)
12. When decomposing the work in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), which of the following is NOT true?
A. Decompose until the WBS element cannot be logically decomposed further
B. Decompose until the WBS element cannot be estimated accurately
C. Decompose until the WBS element cannot be accomplished by a single protect team member
D. Decompose until the WBS element has a meaningful conclusion (2 marks)
13. After a significant amount of time and effort dedicated to the creation of the Work Breakdown Structure, it is finally ready. Now you have distributed the WBS to all the relevant stakeholders. You receive an email from Rajab complaining that the WBS is not detailed enough. For detailed descriptions of each WBS element, where should Rajab check?
A. Scope Statement
B. WBS Dictionary
C. Stakeholder Register
D. Project charter (2 marks)
14. While working as the Project Manager of a computer networking project, you are visited by the Project Sponsor. The sponsor asks you to lay fiber optic cables and not the twisted pair cable which has been mentioned in the scope statement and WBS. What should be your next step?
A. Ask the team to accommodate the request as soon as possible
B. Look for cheaper suppliers so that the cost impact can be minimized
C. Set up an emergency team meeting
D. Refuse the request and ask the sponsor to use the change management system (2 marks)
15. The executive of Jokam pharmaceuticals has appointed their finance manager to provide business assurance, to monitor whether the sales will exceed the production costs as the project progresses through each stage. How well does this apply the ‘manage by exception’ principle, and why?
A. It applies it well, because a PRINCE2 project should structure the project into management stages to enable approval on a stage-by-stage basis.
B. It applies it well, because the executive needs to be confident that controls and tolerances are being implemented effectively.
C. It applies it poorly, because roles should be combined in a small project as long as there is no conflict of interest.
D. It applies it poorly, because a PRINCE2 project should focus on delivering quality outputs rather than on the work required to deliver the products (2 marks)
16. During project estimation, project manager estimates ALL the following, EXCEPT?
A. Project cost
B. Project duration
C. Project effort
D. Project Stakeholders (2 marks)
17. Which of the following is NOT achievable using an automated project estimation tools?
A. Predicting staffing levels
B. Predicting clients demands
C. Predicting software cost
D. Predicting software schedules (2 marks)
18. Which is the first process in information technology project schedule management?
A. Defining activities
B. Estimating activity durations
C. Planning schedule management
D. Sequencing activities (2 marks)
19. On the network diagram shown below, give the name of activity marked X.
A. Null activity
B. Predecessor activity
C. Special activity
D. Dummy activity (2 marks)
20. Study the project activities and timings shown below:
Activity Duration (weeks)
Q: Undertake and analyze market research 6
R: Presentations to Directors for product approval 3
S: Retraining of ICT staff 2
T: Finalize Software design 4
U: Gather and analyze test market feedback 3
V: Uninstall obsolete software 3
W: Update organization Servers 9
X: Finalize and complete ERP software 5
Y: Launch Preparation 2
Determine the critical path.
D. Q-T-W-X-Y (2 marks)
21. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as?
A. Free float
B. Independent float
C. Total float
D. Half float (2 marks)
22. Which process involves determining risks likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each?
A. Identifying risks
B. Planning risk management
C. Performing qualitative risk analysis
D. Performing quantitative risk analysis (2 marks)
23. What is the name given to a type of conflict that relates to the content and goals of work?
D. Process (2 marks)
24. Which term is used to indicate a standard of measurement in information technology project quality management?
D. Meticulous (2 marks)
25. Lawyer Mildred is a team manager working on the draft contract for the project sponsor. She usually sends an email to the project manager every two days summarising the status of the work. There is no major progress expected over the next one month, so the project manager amends the work package to receive reports over the phone. Is this appropriate, and why?
A. Yes, because a checkpoint report can be event-driven
B. Yes, because a checkpoint report can be an oral report
C. No, because the reporting format cannot be changed during delivery
D. No, because only an exception report can be an oral report (2 marks)
26. Which of the following would be considered as the MOST LIKELY impact of e-procurement in information technology project management?
A. It reduces transaction costs, promotes efficiency and reduces competition in the marketplace
B. It opens up the marketplace to increased competition, but limits the ability to manage suppliers
C. It promotes efficiency improvements, opens up the market to increased competition, and increase long-term costs
D. It drives efficiency, opens up the market to competition, and improves the ability to manage suppliers (2 marks)
27. The management of Divo Ltd has decided that the new system required by the organisation will be outsourced. The project manager is concerned that the system owners will not have access to the software to check the quality before the software is completed. Therefore, the project manager has requested that the contract with the consultant includes a requirement to review the quality of the software after each module has been developed. Is this appropriate?
A. Yes, because the customer should specify their rights of inspection as well as the quality expectations for a product.
B. Yes, because the senior supplier should approve the quality methods to be used to check the quality of the recorded songs.
C. No, because the team manager should ensure that the recorded songs meet the quality criteria specified in the product description.
D. No, because there should be a shared understanding between the customer and the supplier of the quality levels required (2 marks)
28. Rachel; the project manager at Triton Incorporation wanted to fix rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labor needed for one unit of an item. These are strictly based per _______________.
A. Special Data Book
B. Standard Data Book
C. Special Data Record
D. Specific Data Record (2 marks)
29. Karen highlighted the options to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate. Which one of the following would she NOT have?
A. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
B. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
C. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
D. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars (2 marks)
30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
I. Projects have defined objectives
II. Programs have a larger scope than projects
III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only (2 marks)
31. What is the name given to an agreement regarding the work to be performed on an information technology project?
A. Scope of work
C. Proof of Work
D. Deliverable (2 marks)
32. A technique of project management based on several iterations or incremental steps towards the completion of the project is known as?
A. Waterfall Technique
B. Agile Technique
C. Program evaluation and review technique
D. Rational Unified Process (2 marks)
33. A _____________ is the tool that is used to study monetary transactions by breaking inflows and outflows down, usually on a monthly basis.
A. Estimation analyses
B. Present value
C. Cash flow table
D. Real cash flow (2 marks)
34. If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all project management processes, where should the focus be?
A. Work breakdown structures
B. Communications management plan
C. Project management information systems
D. Scope management plan (2 marks)
35. A project team is working on manufacturing a new IT product, but they are having difficulty creating a project charter. What is the BEST description of the real problem?
A. They have not identified the project objectives
B. The end date has not been set
C. They have not identified the product of the project
D. They are working on a process and not a project (2 marks)
36. Which of the following is an example of information technology project indirect cost?
A. Insurance costs
B. Labour costs
C. Material costs
D. Employee salaries (2 marks)
37. When is project monitoring and control carried out in an information technology project?
A. At the beginning of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. Throughout the project
D. At the formulation of the project (2 marks)
38. While drawing the network diagram, for each activity project, we should focus on ALL of the following EXCEPT?
A. What activities precede this activity?
B. What activities follow this activity?
C. What activities can concurrently take place with this activity?
D. What activities are more important than this activity? (2 marks)
39. Which of the following statements BEST describes the term quality as used in information technology project management?
A. Inspection, testing and measurement
B. Reviews and audits
C. Fitness for purpose of deliverables
D. Professionally-bound project reports (2 marks)
40. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of PRINCE2?
A. Continued business justification
B. Learn from experience
C. Manage by stages
D. Focus on Managers (2 marks)
41. Which of the following is NOT an activity undertaken during information technology project closure?
A. Request final payment for work done
B. Release the final product to the customer
C. Hand over the project documentation, manuals, source code, and network layouts
D. Final product scope analysis (2 marks)
42. Which one of the following is NOT an approach for managing conflict in project management?
D. Abstraction (2 marks)
43. The following Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) statements are true, EXCEPT?
A. Project Manager must structure work into small elements that are manageable
B. Project Manager must structure work into small elements that are independent
C. Project Manager must structure work into small elements that are dependent
D. Project Manager must structure work into small elements that are measurable (2 marks)
44. Completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of its predecessor in which order?
D. Finish-to-finish (2 marks)
45. Activity resource requirements is an input to which of the following information technology project management process?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Control schedule
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Sequence activities (2 marks)
46. Sarah, a project manager is identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities of an information technology project. She is undertaking which of the following process?
A. Define Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Sequence Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations (2 marks)
47. Which of the following statements BEST outlines the steps in developing an IT project schedule?
A. Create a WBS-Estimate durations-Determine resources-Identify predecessors-Determine milestones-
B. Create a WBS-Estimate distance-Determine resources-Identify predecessors-Determine milestones-Identify
C. Create a WBS-Estimate distance-Determine rating-Identify predecessors-Determine milestones-Identify
D. Create a WBS-Estimate distance-Determine resources-Identify procedure-Determine milestones-Identify
dependencies (2 marks)
48. Which one of the following is NOT a stage/ phase of team development according to Tuckman model for team development?
D. Perfecting (2 marks)
49. In IT project management, the decision to request an increase of resources for a project is the responsibility of?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Director of project management
D. Project stakeholder (2 marks)
50. Which of the option is NOT a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
A. Deadlines exist
B. Independent activities
C. Too many workers may be required
D. Costly delay (2 marks)