TUESDAY: 6 December 2022. Morning Paper. Time Allowed: 2 hours.
Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. The paper is made up of fifty (50) multiple choice questions. Each question is allocated two (2) marks.
1. Which of the following could hinder horizontal communication?
A. Flat organisation structure
B. Levels of management
C. Empire building
D. Lack of eye-contact (2 marks)
2. Identify a way that a sender could ensure proper encoding of a message.
A. Use active constructions
B. Avoid concrete expressions
C. Solicit for suitable feedback
D. Choose an appropriate channel (2 marks)
3. Which of the following is a benefit of effective communication?
A. Information overload B. Improvement in technology
C. Enhance computer networking
D. Stronger business relationships (2 marks)
4. Which of the following is a measure that management could institute to control grapevine in an organisation?
A. Allowing access to confidential information
B. Not involving employees in decision-making
C. Maintaining open channels of communication
D. Limit the volume of upward communication (2 marks)
5. Which of the following statement explains the meaning of ethnocentrism as a barrier to communication?
A. Assumptions made about people of a certain cultural group
B. Belief that one’s own culture is superior to other cultures
C. Difference in behavior between people of different cultures
D. Different translations because of use of different languages (2 marks)
6. Which of the following statement describes the meaning of the term ‘decoding’?
A. Receiving the message sent by the sender
B. Translating and interpreting the message received
C. Putting the message in a language that is acceptable
D. Transferring the message through the selected channel (2 marks)
7. Identify a way in which courtesy could be achieved in communication.
A. Ensuring accuracy of information
B. Using specific facts and figures
C. Sending polite and sincere messages
D. Ensuring adequacy of information (2 marks)
8. What term is given to the type of communication that occurs within oneself?
A. Intrapersonal communication
B. Interpersonal communication
C. Personal communication
D. Incoherent communication (2 marks)
9. Which of the following is a challenge of using questionnaires to collect data?
A. Not possible to administer to a large audience
B. Difference in interpretation of the questions
C. Cannot be used to collect quantitative data
D. No flexibility in terms of time to complete them (2 marks)
10. Which of the following is a quality of a good publicity material?
A. Lengthy
B. Partial
C. Actionable
D. Newsworthy (2 marks)
11. The following represents the procedure of designing forms:
(i) Preparation of draft
(ii) Establishing the purpose
(iii) Production of copies
(iv) Designing the layout
(v) Approval
(vi) Determine the content
Which of the following set represents the correct procedure of designing a form?
A. (i), (ii), (iv), (vi), (iii), (v)
B. (ii), (vi), (iv), (i), (v), (iii)
C. (v), (iv), (ii), (vi), (i), (iii)
D. (iv), (ii), (vi), (i), (iii), (v) (2 marks)
12. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good sentence?
A. Should contain one idea
B. Should have an introduction
C. Should use passive voice
D. Should contain all tenses (2 marks)
13. Identify a situation when use of email communication could be preferable.
A. When there is need to persuade the reader
B. When conveying a composite message
C. When sending a message to multiple recipients
D. When there is a request for more information (2 marks)
14. When would the use of pie charts be most appropriate in communication?
A. Showing comparisons
B. Showing trends
C. Showing sequence
D. For dramatic effect (2 marks)
15. Which of the following non-verbal signal could show active listening?
A. Pitch
B. Posture
C. Touch
D. Time (2 marks)
16. Which of the following could determine space maintained between communicators?
A. Speed
B. Channel
C. Medium
D. Status (2 marks)
17. Which of the following is an effective use of non-verbal signals?
A. Use of simple words that are easy to understand
B. Using the same tone throughout a presentation
C. Use of facial expressions that match the words
D. Use of gestures that contradict the speech (2 marks)
18. Which of the following is a purpose of gestures in speech delivery?
A. Introducing
B. Supporting
C. Concluding
D. Evaluating (2 marks)
19. Identify an objective of critical listening?
A. Evaluate logic of arguments
B. Criticise the message sent
C. Helps in gaining trust of others
D. Ignore complex information (2 marks)
20. What term refers to an attempt to convince recipients to change their responses or opinions?
A. Assertive communication
B. Persuasive communication
C. Aggressive communication
D. Active communication (2 marks)
21. What technique could a receiver use to indicate understanding of a telephone conversation?
A. Giving suitable verbal signals
B. Use of non-verbal signals
C. Recording the conversation
D. Making notes of the conversation (2 marks)
22. Which of the following is an advantage of oral communication?
A. Suitable for lengthy messages
B. Appropriate for controversial matters
C. Easy to get the recipient’s attention
D. Well thought feedback is given (2 marks)
23. Identify a technique that a speaker could use to manage stage flight.
A. Conclude appropriately
B. Use appropriate humour
C. Rehearse the speech
D. Stand near the audience (2 marks)
24. Identify a benefit of using an outline to deliver a public speech.
A. Enhances quick presentation
B. Makes it easy to read the speech
C. Facilitates choice of a good topic
D. Helps develop a logical sequence (2 marks)
25. Which of the following visual aid could enable a speaker incorporate audiences’ ideas while making a presentation?
A. Bar graphs
B. Flip charts
C. Log tables
D. Physical objects (2 marks)
26. Identify an objective of having a good introduction during a presentation?
A. Building credibility
B. Summarising the speech
C. Ensuring coherence
D. Reinforce the message (2 marks)
27. What is the purpose of exit interviews?
A. Appraisal of employees
B. Hiring right employees
C. Reduce staff retention
D. Constructive feedback (2 marks)
28. Which of the following is a quality of a good interviewer?
A. Biased
B. Patronising
C. Analytical
D. Judgmental (2 marks)
29. Which of the following is an advantage of conducting interviews?
A. Immediate feedback
B. Less time consuming
C. Cheap to conduct
D. Brings people together (2 marks)
30. Which statement describes the process of making decisions in a meeting through consensus?
A. The chairperson makes the decision without involving others
B. Involves convincing all members to agree with the decision
C. Everyone is in agreement and no convincing is required
D. Made through voting with majority carrying the day (2 marks)
31. Which of the following is a step that a secretary should take while planning an agenda for a meeting?
A. Place routine items at the end of the agenda
B. Record the summary of actions to be undertaken
C. Record the list of members to attend the meeting
D. Cross-reference items from previous meetings (2 marks)
32. Identify a way that the chairperson could enhance the effectiveness of an audio-conference?
A. Send ahead any necessary documents and visual aids
B. Display suitable visual aids attractively for all to see
C. Use of non-verbal signals to reinforce the message
D. Distribute the agenda while doing the introductions (2 marks)
33. Which term refers to the least number of people that should attend a formal meeting?
A. Participants
B. Quorum
C. Officials
D. Proposers (2 marks)
34. Identify a reason why most organisations are replacing face to face meetings with webinars?
A. Enhances good interaction
B. Promotes use of teamwork
C. Allows diverse audience
D. Eases environmental control (2 marks)
35. Identify situations when graphics could be included in formal reports?
A. When recommendations are to be included
B. When presenting a very lengthy conclusion
C. When presenting complex facts and ideas
D. In the absence of a letter of transmittal (2 marks)
36. Which of the following is a benefit of maintaining a code of ethics in an organisation?
A. Helps determine the purpose of good behaviour
B. Helps in record-keeping and filing information
C. Provides information on the behaviour of staff
D. Serves as guideline for acceptable conduct (2 marks)
37. Which of the following is a purpose of ethics in communication?
A. Promotes faster communication
B. Enhances trust between parties
C. Reduces grapevine communication
D. Encourages upward communication (2 marks
38. Which of the following is a characteristic of ethical communication?
A. Lack of confidentiality in communication
B. Withholding crucial information from others
C. Accepting responsibility for messages conveyed
D. Conveying offending messages if they are true (2 marks)
39. Why is there an increase in the use of websites in business communication?
A. Cost effective to design and host
B. Ensures appropriate use of personal data
C. Useful in branding and public relations
D. Regular updating and responding to enquiries (2 marks)
40. What term refers to intentionally presenting someone else’s ideas without quoting the source?
A. Fabrication
B. Falsification
C. Piracy
D. Plagiarism (2 marks)
41. Which of the following is used in analysing customers behaviour?
A. Data repackaging
B. Data mining
C. Data encryption
D. Data processing
42. Which of the following is unethical in relation to customers’ data?
A. Keeping data for longer than necessary
B. Revealing breaches of sensitive data
C. Collecting and storing customer data
D. Circulate customers data with their consent (2 marks)
43. Which of the following could contribute to accuracy of information?
A. Regular updates
B. Immediate feedback
C. Data accessibility
D. Simple language (2 marks)
44. Identify a measure that could be instituted to enhance data integrity.
A. Regular data collection
B. Authorised changes to data
C. Ensure accessibility of data
D. Discarding personal data (2 marks)
45. Which of the following is a characteristic of ethical listeners?
A. Engage in selective listening
B. Don’t read between the lines
C. Ask questions for clarifications
D. Respond before understanding (2 marks)
46. Which of the following is a way of dealing with ethical dilemmas?
A. Rewarding employees
B. Moral considerations
C. Disciplining employees
D. Accept responsibility (2 marks)
47. Which of the following is a characteristic of ethical communicators?
A. Fully trust other communicators
B. Consider quality of data before use
C. They solicit for immediate feedback
D. They engage in oral conversations (2 marks)
48. Which of the following is a type of unethical communication?
A. Objective communication
B. Conveying negative messages
C. Not interrupting the speaker
D. Deceptive communication (2 marks)
49. How could top managers promote ethics in an organisation?
A. Proper planning
B. Role allocation
C. Policy formulation
D. Staff motivation (2 marks)
50. Which of the following could be considered unethical in the persuasion process?
A. Not appealing for desired action
B. Not seeking for change of opinion
C. Giving evidence of facts given
D. Manipulating desired reasoning
