MONDAY: 1 August 2022. Afternoon paper. Time Allowed: 2 hours.
This paper is made up of fifty (50) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. Each question is allocated two (2) marks.
1. Effective communication could tend to:
A. Reduce the relationships among employees
B. Reduce listening ability
C. Increase employees’ resistant to change
D. Improve interpersonal relations (2 marks)
2. The term “grapevine” is also known as:
A. Downward communication
B. Informal communication
C. Upward communication
D. Horizontal communication (2 marks)
3. An idea in communication is NOT expressed through ___________________ means:
A. Verbal
B. Vocal
C. Visual
D. Vehement (2 marks)
4. Users of media for their own end are identified as:
A. Passive audience
B. Active audience
C. Positive audience
D. Negative audience (2 marks)
5. Group communication is also regarded as:
A. Intrapersonal communication
B. Inter-personal communication
C. Organisational communication
D. Mass communication (2 marks)
6. Which of the following is the CORRECT chronological order in the communication process.
A. Encoding – idea creation – channel selection – decoding – feedback
B. Encoding – channel selection – idea creation – feedback – decoding
C. Idea creation – channel selection – encoding – decoding – feedback
D. Idea creation – encoding – channel selection – decoding – feedback (2 marks)
7. Which of the following BEST explains the role of brochures?
A. For inquiries by the customer
B. For advertising products and services
C. For organising workshops
D. For inducting employees (2 marks)
8. The following are key features of mass media communication EXCEPT?
A. Has great power to influence society
B. Offer limited choices of media platforms to audience
C. Is impacted by happenings in the society
D. Constitutes technical and institutional methods of communication (2 marks)
9. A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a ___________:
A. Complex question
B. Non-sequitur
C. Repetitive phrase
D. Ice-breaker (2 marks)
10. Effective communication pre-supposes:
A. Non-alignment
B. Domination
C. Passivity
D. Understanding (2 marks)
11. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, most people believe:
A. Intermediate messages
B. Verbal messages
C. Non-verbal messages
D. Aggressive messages (2 marks)
12. Expressive communication is driven by:
A. Passive aggression
B. Encoder’s personality
C. External clues
D. Encoders-decoders contract (2 marks)
13. ____________________ is not a form of outdoor media:
A. Bulletins
B. Webcast
C. Placards
D. Banners (2 marks)
14. Story telling in a presentation helps to ______________________:
A. Build astonishment
B. Build concentration
C. Build anticipation
D. Stifle attention (2 marks)
15. Ideological codes shape our collective:
A. Productions
B. Perceptions
C. Consumptions
D. Creations (2 marks)
16. _______________________ is not one of the 7C’s of effective communication:
A. Concreteness
B. Courtesy
C. Coherence
D. Conciseness (2 marks)
17. Clarity in communication has the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Makes understanding easier
B. Makes use of concrete words
C. Makes use of jargons in explanations
D. Makes use of appropriate words (2 marks)
18. Which of the following statements is FALSE about intrapersonal communication?
A. Enables a person to open up and discuss matters
B. Enables a person to shape self-concept
C. Enables a person to develop one’s convictions
D. Enables a person to interpret messages and ideas (2 marks)
19. Courtesy in communication could be hindered by ______________________.
A. Avoiding anger
B. Use of positive words
C. Use of discriminating words
D. Refraining from preaching (2 marks)
20. The following factors are considered important in effective oral communication EXCEPT.
A. Enunciation
B. Modulation
C. Projection
D. Deletion (2 marks)
21. The message may be misinterpreted because of ____________________:
A. Barriers
B. Distortions
C. Distractions
D. Noise (2 marks)
22. The following common errors should be avoided in a presentation EXCEPT.
A. Avoiding pretence
B. Making the body stiff
C. Noding down
D. Showing awkward gestures (2 marks)
23. Proxemics refers to in communication refers to the:
A. Study of cultural patterns and interactions
B. Study of the distance between people and objects
C. Study of body languages and vocal cues
D. Study of time and its impacts on people (2 marks)
24. The following statement is FALSE on the elements of a good business report.
A. It is subjective in nature
B. It serves some business purpose
C. It is logical and comprehensive
D. It helps the process of decision making (2 marks)
25. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in a notice of a meeting?
A. Age of chairman
B. Name of organisation
C. Venue
D. Date (2 marks)
26. Which of the following statements FALSE on the agenda of a meeting?
A. Ensures every point is taken up for discussion
B. Facilitates the preparation of the notice
C. Ensures only relevant matters are discussed
D. Facilitates the preparation of minutes (2 marks)
27. Which of the following statements is WRONG on the characteristics of an advertising message?
A. It has brevity
B. It has intelligibility
C. It has discord
D. It has suggestiveness (2 marks)
28. Which of the following contains no illustration or logos?
A. Television
B. Magazines
C. Classified advertisements
D. Cinema (2 marks)
29. Cross-cultural miscommunication occurs due to ____________________________.
A. Marriage
B. Religious beliefs
C. Cultural heritage
D. Assumption of similarity (2 marks)
30. Which type of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job applicant is evaluated?
A. Stress interview
B. Screening interview
C. Group interview
D. Behavioural interview (2 marks)
31. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a structured interview?
A. Complex to replicate
B. Sequential in nature
C. Utilises standard process
D. Uses a quantitative approach (2 marks)
32. The following is NOT a result of the widespread use of digital technology during the COVID-19 lockdowns.
A. Reduced feeling of loneliness
B. Increased irritability
C. Increased information support
D. Increased emotional support (2 marks)
33. Which of the following statement is FALSE on email communication?
A. Emails lack a personal touch
B. Emails cause informational overload
C. Emails can be phished
D. Emails cannot spread computer viruses (2 marks)
34. In oral communication, there is a possibility of immediate __________________.
A. Reaction
B. Response
C. Reflection
D. Reset (2 marks)
35. The following strategies are followed during media interviews EXCEPT:
A. Make clear and concise statements
B. Make your voice authoritative
C. Make use of appropriate nonverbal cues
D. Make audience familiar to you (2 marks)
36. Email discussions are most productive when _____________.
A. Leader indicates his name before making a comment
B. Leader posts one question at a time with deadline to respond
C. Leader influences members to make decisions
D. Leader allows members to participate on fixed schedule and pace (2 marks)
37. Which of the following is NOT a step to take before attending a meeting?
A. Make list of questions
B. Read materials distributed
C. Stay focused
D. Study the agenda (2 marks)
38. The following are pillars of ethical communication EXCEPT.
A. Openness
B. Clarity
C. Respect
D. Calmness (2 marks)
39. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of frequent unethical behaviour in an organisation?
A. Financial liability
B. Public relation crises
C. Public goodwill
D. Operational desolation (2 marks)
40. Which of the following is an effect of robust external communication?
A. Better business prospects
B. Effective coordination
C. Greater efficiency
D. Improved understanding (2 marks)
41. Memos are useful for the following purposes EXCEPT?
A. Communicate policy changes
B. Confirm decisions made
C. Answer recurring enquiries
D. Issue instructions (2 marks)
42. Which of the following characteristics is NOT to be considered in writing a headline of a press report?
A. Catchy
B. Suggestive
C. Prompt
D. Explicit (2 marks)
43. Which of the following is NOT a function of nonverbal cues?
A. Regulate
B. Authenticate
C. Complement
D. Accent (2 marks)
44. The following are methods of evaluating information EXCEPT?
A. Recency
B. Relevance
C. Readable
D. Reliability (2 marks)
45. X is a director of XYZ Ltd. He sits in the interview panel scheduled to interview B who is his nephew. B has qualified in the written examination for a job at XYZ Ltd. Which of the following ethical issues apply to X?
A. Nepotism
B. Conflict of interest
C. Corruption
D. Embezzlement (2 marks)
46. The following statement LEAST explains a strategy of controlling nervousness while delivering a speech:
A. Go over the speech in the mind
B. Practise positive self-talk
C. Concentrate on the message
D. Use positive mental imaging (2 marks)
47. The following guidelines should be observed when developing slides for a presentation EXCEPT?
A. Use action oriented verbs
B. Use oriented words
C. Use abstract nouns
D. Use a consistent style (2 marks)
48. Which of the following is NOT a channel of downward communication?
A. Performance reports
B. Emails
C. Memos
D. Information manual (2 marks)
49. Which of the following statements is FALSE on the ethics committee in an organisation?
A. Oversees arbitration of conflicts
B. Oversees compliance with rules of conduct
C. Ensures an organisation enforces accountability
D. Oversees compliance with regulations (2 marks)
50. The following are negative consequences of the use of social media in an organisation EXCEPT?
A. Can lead to tarnishing of the organisation image
B. It is a tool of gossip in an organisation
C. Systems may acquire viruses corrupting essential files
D. Helps the organisation to counter competition (2 marks)
