NETWORK SECURITY DECEMBER 2022 PAST PAPER

TUESDAY: 6 December 2022. Afternoon Paper. Time Allowed: 2 hours.

Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. This paper is made up of fifty (50) Multiple Choice Questions. Each question is allocated two (2) marks.

1. Which of the following is a tool that inspects an application code to estimate the way it behaves while running?

A. Dynamic analysis
B. Static analysis
C. Scanning analysis
D. Maintenance analysis

2. During network security penetration testing, the results of the penetration test are compiled into a report detailing all of the following EXCEPT:

A. None sensitive data that was accessed
B. Specific vulnerabilities that were exploited
C. Sensitive data that was accessed
D. The amount of time the pen tester was able to remain in the system undetected

3. The motivation of internal threat that involves stealing information for another organisation is referred to as?

A. Fraud
B. Sabotage
C. Espionage
D. Revenge

4. The physical control that requires employees to tap their ID pass on a reader that will unlock the gate and allow them to pass through is referred to as?

A. Turnstiles
B. Electronic Doors
C. Mantraps
D. Security Guards

5. Employees in an organisation can contribute to data breaches in the following ways EXCEPT:

A. Using unauthorised devices
B. Improper access control
C. Using unauthorised software
D. Spoofing or sniffing

6. Which of the following is NOT a penetration testing method?

A. External testing
B. Triple blind testing
C. Internal testing
D. Blind testing

7. The type of cyber security attack where attackers access someone else’s computer for mining cryptocurrency is referred to as?

A. Cryptojacking
B. Cryptocurrency
C. Insider threat
D. Man in the middle attack

8. Which of the following is NOT a precautionary measure to be undertaken to prevent cyber-attacks?

A. Frequent changing of passwords
B. Regularly updating operating systems and applications
C. Not opening emails from unknown senders
D. Using single factor authentication

9. Which of the following is a BEST practice to protect against an insider attack?

A. Protect non-critical assets
B. Enforce policies
C. Increase volatility
D. Promote non-culture changes

10. An attack on confidentiality where the attacker gains access to an asset is referred to as?

A. Modification
B. Interception
C. Interruption
D. Fabrication

11. Which of the following is a type of passive attack?

A. Denial of service
B. Release of message contents
C. Spoofing
D. Sniffing

12. A cyber security attack that involves the creation of a false stream or modification of the data stream is referred to as?

A. Active attack
B. Passive attack
C. Cryptographic attack
D. Encryption

13. The type of cryptography that involves a pair of keys known as a public key and a private key which are associated with an entity that needs to authenticate its identity electronically is referred to as?

A. Private key cryptography
B. Universal key cryptography
C. Public key cryptography
D. Decryption key cryptography

14. The DES (Data Encryption Standard) cipher follows the fiestal structure. Which of the following properties are NOT shown by the fiestal structure?

A. The plain text is converted into a matrix form first
B. The input text is divided into two parts: one being left half and another one being right half.
C. The input text is divided into two parts: one being left half and another one being right half.
D. Swapping of the left and right halves are performed after each round.

15. The kind of symmetrical encryption algorithm where a set of bits is encoded with a specific secret key in electronic data blocks is referred to as?

A. Stream algorithm
B. Block algorithm
C. Symmetrical algorithm
D. Fixed algorithm

16. All of the following should be included in a network testing plan EXCEPT?

A. Definition of test objectives
B. Testing approach.
C. Testing tools.
D. Testing personnel

17. The type of network testing that describes how you can test that every possible client platform can operate with every possible server platform is referred to as?

A. Functional testing
B. Configuration testing
C. Concurrency testing
D. Peak load testing

18. Which of the following is the fourth stage to be executed when creating a network test plan?

A. Analyze the product.
B. Design the Test Strategy.
C. Define Test Criteria.
D. Resource Planning.

19. Which of the following is NOT a cyber essential control in network security?

A. Patch management
B. Firewall
C. Digital certificate
D. Access control

20. For a password based authentication, an organisation should:

A. Protect against brute force password guessing
B. Set a minimum password length of at least eight characters
C. Change passwords promptly when the user knows or suspects they have been compromised
D. Implement digital certificates to protect passwords

21. A type of attack where a perpetrator first investigates the intended victim to gather necessary background information such as potential points of entry and weak security protocols is referred to as?

A. Man in the middle attack
B. Social engineering
C. Spoofing
D. Sniffing

22. A cyber security methodology that combines best practices and technology to prevent the exposure of sensitive information outside of an organisation is referred to as?

A. Email security
B. Sandboxing
C. Intrusion prevention system
D. Data loss prevention

23. Robust network security will protect against all of the following EXCEPT

A. Worms
B. Viruses
C. Intrusion
D. Spyware

24. A social engineering attack technique where the attacker uses a false promise to lure users into a trap that steals their personal information is referred to as?

A. Baiting
B. Scareware
C. Pretexting
D. Phishing

25. Which of the following is NOT a network security policy objective?

A. To determines policy enforcement
B. To lay out the architecture of the organisation’s network security environment
C. To keep malicious users out
D. To enable users to access data

26. The activity of verifying the identity of a user is referred to as?

A. Identification
B. Authentication
C. Verification
D. Validation

27. A firewall that is implemented as a physical appliance deployed in an organisation’s server room is referred to as

A. Software firewall
B. Cloud firewall
C. Hardware firewall
D. System firewall

28. What is the name of the symmetrical encryption algorithm where a set of bits is encoded with a specific secret key in electronic data blocks?

A. Stream algorithm
B. Block algorithm
C. Symmetrical algorithm
D. Fixed algorithm

29. The type of firewall that inspects traffic on a packet by packet basis is referred to as?

A. Stateless
B. Stateful
C. Next generation
D. Software

30. The policy which defines a set of guidelines that help organisations to keep track of the duration that information should be kept and when the information that is no longer needed should be disposed is referred to as

A. Security policy
B. Data retention policy
C. Data policy
D. Media disposal policy

31. Which of the following is NOT a general requirement that should be included in the change management policy?

A. Development of scheduled change calendars
B. Communicating unplanned outages to stakeholders
C. Implementing processes to ensure that production data is necessarily replicated
D. Communicating Regular system and application patching schedules

32. Which of the following is NOT a physical control security measure?

A. Access control
B. Use of passwords
C. Perimeter wall
D. Exterior lights

33. The security mechanism that encrypts internet traffic and protects a user’s online activity is referred to as

A. Virtual private network
B. Firewall
C. Encryption
D. Authentication

34. Which of the following security practices should be considered as normal?

A. Employees should install anti-virus software and enable its automatic updating
B. Authentication on the computer should be turned on
C. Links in emails should be clicked very carefully
D. Surfing the Internet on suspicious websites should be avoided

35. Which of the following justifies the importance of passwords to users?

A. Get into the system quickly
B. Make efficient use of time
C. Retain confidentiality of files
D. Simplify file structures

36. Which of the following threats uses personalized information in an attempt at obtaining information stored in a computer?

A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Spoofing
D. Phishing

37. Victor turned on his tablet and got a message displaying a message indicating that all of his files have been locked. In order to get the files unencrypted, he is supposed to send an email and include a specific ID in the email title. The message also includes ways to use block-chain as payment for the file decryption. After inspecting the message, the network analyst suspects a security breach occurred. Which of the following type of malware could be responsible?

A. Trojan horse
B. Ransomware
C. Adware
D. Spyware

38. The cyber security framework that assesses the present state of the infrastructure and technology is referred to as?

A. Control framework
B. Program framework
C. Risk framework
D. Technology framework

39. The information systems security goal which ensures the accuracy and reliability of the information stored on the computer systems is referred to as?

A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Conformity

40. Web security protects computer users against all of the following threats EXCEPT:

A. Ransomware
B. Phishing
C. Jamming
D. Spoofing

41. Which of the following is a defense strategy that a developer can use to protect its website?

A. Web scanning
B. Wire tool
C. Resource mobiliser
D. Network analyser

42. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of network segmentation?

A. Improved network monitoring
B. Protect vulnerable devices
C. Improved network security
D. Improved network integrity

43. Which of the following is NOT a network segmentation best practice?

A. Make illegitimate paths to access easier than legitimate paths
B. Audit and monitor your network
C. Combine similar network resources
D. Visualise your network

44. The type of analytics where data is pulled from various software tools to identify anomalous activity across the network is referred to as?

A. Diagnostic analytics
B. Behavioral analytics
C. Descriptive analytics
D. Predictive analytics

45. Which of the following is NOT a common type of malware attack?

A. Trojan
B. Adware
C. Virus
D. Spoofing

46. The process of identifying and analysing potential issues that could negatively impact key business executives is referred to as_____________.

A. Risk analysis
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Penetration test
D. Risk test

47. Which one of the following relates to safe and responsible use of Information and communication technologies?

A. Cyber security
B. Computer ethics
C. Cyber ethics
D. Cyber safety

48. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement speciality called________________.

A. Computer forensics
B. Computer animation
C. Computer security
D. Computer simulation

49. A computer program that is designed to replicate itself by copying itself into the other programs stored in a computer is referred to as?

A. Computer virus
B. Computer worm
C. Computer file
D. Computer software

50. The type of application security testing that focuses on the detection of vulnerabilities present in the application and infrastructure is known as?

A. Runtime application self-protection
B. Interactive application security testing
C. Static application security testing
D. Insecure application security testing

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