WINDOWS SERVER ROLES AND FEATURES AUGUST 2022 PAST PAPER

TUESDAY: 2 August 2022. Morning paper. Time Allowed: 2 hours.

This paper is made up of fifty (50) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. Each question is allocated two (2) marks.

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four divisions or container structures in active directory? (2 marks)
A. Webs
B. Workgroup
C. Domain
D. Sites

2. Is the processing which is carried out by the use of remote terminal processors. (2 marks)
A. Digital processing
B. Logical processing
C. Teleprocessing
D. Manual processing

3. How many types of groups are available in Active Directory? (2 marks)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

4. Transmission in which all bits are sent at the same time for each character is called? (2 marks)
A. Local transmission
B. Parallel transmission
C. Wide transmission
D. Serial transmission

5. What is the unit of measuring the speed of transmitted data? (2 marks)
A. Baud
B. Band
C. Hertz
D. Seconds

6. What type of hard disk formatting creates FAT file system? (2 marks)
A. Low level
B. High level
C. Maximum level
D. Minimum level

7. Which tab option must be enabled or disabled to specify a printer share name and accessibility? (2 marks)
A. General
B. Sharing
C. Location
D. Advanced

8. What command can you type to perform a system state back up? (2 marks)
A. Wbadmin start statebackup
B. Wbadmin start sysstatebackup
C. Wbadmin start systemstatebackup
D. Wbadmin begin systemstatebackup

9. Which one of the following ports is NOT used by active directory? (2 marks)
A. Port 135 TCP, UDP
B. Port 137 TCP, UDP
C. Port 636 TCP
D. Port 203

10. Which of the following is the minimum processor specification needed for windows server 2016? (2 marks)
A. x32 or x64 processor running at 1.4 Ghz
B. x64 processor running at 1.4 Ghz
C. x64 dual core processor runningat 1.4 Ghz
D. x64 processor running at 1.8 Ghz

11. What is the other name for the system virtual machine? (2 marks)
A. Hardware virtual machine
B. Software virtual machine
C. Real virtual machine
D. Active real machine

12. Which of the following functions is not allowed for a standard user account? (2 marks)
A. Install a printer
B. Install network drivers
C. Configure WPA keys
D. Modify the desktop settings

13. What is the CIDR equivalent for 255.255.255.254? (2 marks)
A. /24
B. /25
C. /26
D. /27

14. What is a Guest as used in virtualization?
A. A computer that hosts Guest VMs
B. A Virtual Machine is often referred to as a Guest
C. A VM that hosts other VMs
D. A temporary VM that must eventually leave its host

15. What subnet mask should you use for a 200 computers network using static IP address’ on the 192.168.10.0 network?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255

16. Which of the following information can be configured on a VPN client so that it can access VPN server?
A. Lookup address
B. Mac address
C. Domain name
D. Connection address

17. Which command is used to purge the DNS resolver cache?
A. Ipconfig /flush
B. Ipconfig /flushdns
C. Ping /flush
D. Grope /flushdns

18. What program or tool is the easiest to use when administering the server such as editing its host name, domain membership, firewall, networking and settings?
A. Command prompt
B. Windows PowerShell
C. RSOP.msc
D. Server manager

19. A type of backup in SQL server done only to the data that has changed since the last full backup is called?
A. Cold backup
B. Full Backup
C. Online backup
D. Differential backup

20. Which windows role is installed by default?
A. Active Directory Domain Services
B. File and Storage Services
C. DHCP Server
D. PowerShell

21. What filename extension is applied by default to custom consoles that are created for the MMC? (2 marks)
A. .mmc
B. .msc
C. .con
D. .mcn

22. Which of the following contains the controls used to modify DNS name caching? (2marks)
A. The Forwarders tab of a server’s properties sheet
B. The State of Authority (SOA) tab of a zone’s Properties sheet
C. The Root Hints tab of a server’s Properties sheet
D. The New Zone Wizard

23. Which of the following command line options will enable you to check the status of the local Netbios name cache and verify the MAC address of the local computer?
A. Enter nbtstat -c name, where name is Netbios name computer
B. Enter ipconfig -all /netstat
C. Enter ipconfig /nbtstat name, where name is the Netbios name of your computer
D. Enter nbtstst -a name, where name is the Netbios name of your computer

24. Which of the following can be a member of a domain but works without active directory?
A. Standalone CA
B. Enterprise CA
C. Root CA from the network
D. Standard user

25. You are planning an IP addressing strategy for intranet servers on your Windows server 2003, network. You want toensure that these servers cannot be directly accessed from the internet in order to maintain security. Which address range can you use to meet this objective? (2marks)
A. 172.32.0.1 through 172.168.255.254
B. 10.255.255.0 through 10.255.255.255
C. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.18.254
D. 192.162.0.1 through 192.168.0.0

26. How many CGI applications are supported by IIS 6 by default concurrently? (2marks)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7

27. Which users are able to manage profiles on windows 7 computers? (2 marks)
A. The user who uses the profile
B. Server operators
C. Power users
D. Administrators

28. You want to monitor the CPU, memory and disk usage on your computer to ensure that there are no bottlenecks. Which MMC snap-in would you use to access system Monitor? (2 marks)
A. System monitor
B. Reliability Monitor
C. ActiveX control
D. Performance logs and alerts

29. Which RAID uses disk striping, whereby blocks of data are divided up into stripes with each stripe written to a different disk.
A. RAID 0 AND RAID 5
B. RAID 1 AND RAID 5
C. RAID 2 AND RAID 5
D. RAID 1 AND RAID 3

30. If you wanted to require that a user enter an administrator password to perform administrative task, what type of user account should you create for the user?
A. Administrator user account
B. Standard user account
C. Authenticated user account
D. Power user account

31. You have installed a clean installation of windows on your computer, you want an image of the new installation to use as a basis for remote installs. What windows utility should you use to accomplish this? (2 marks)
A. WDS
B. Windows sim
C. ImageX
D. Sysprep

32. You have a user with limited vision, which accessibility utility is used to read aloud screen text, such as text in dialogue boxes, menus and buttons?
A. Read aloud
B. Orator
C. Dialogue Manager
D. Narrator

33. You have scheduled a task scheduler but it doesn’t run when it is supposed to run, you have already verified that the task scheduler is running, what else should you check? (2marks)
A. Verify that the task has been configured to run in unattended mode
B. Make sure the user who is scheduled to run the task has the appropriate permissions
C. Make sure that the time is properly synchronised on the computer
D. Verify that the process manager task is running

34. You want to configure a utility that will verify whether a website is known to be fraudulent, which utility should you configure?
A. Pop-up blocker
B. RSS Reader
C. Phishing filter
D. Add-on manager

35. To protect your windows machine from spyware infection what windows utility should you configure? (2 marks)
A. Windows Defender
B. Phishing filter
C. Pop-up blocker
D. Windows OneCare

36. What happens when a computer enters sleep mode after a specified period? (2 marks)
A. The computer is shut down gracefully
B. Data will be saved to the hard disk
C. The monitor and hard disk will be turned off, but the computer will remain in an active state
D. The user session will not be available when you resume activity on the computer

37. You are using internet explorer to access several RSS feeds that you subscribe to, one of the feeds stores only the 10 most recent updates. You want to ensure that the last 100 updates are stored. What should you do?
A. Configure the RSS feed to automatically download attached files
B. Modify the schedule so that the RSS feed is updated more than ones a day
C. Turn on feed reading view in IE
D. Modify the archive setting so that the last 100 items are stored

38. What step is required by nearly every server role immediately after installation? (2 marks)
A. Pre-deployment configuration
B. Powering on the new server role
C. Restarting the new server role
D. Post deployment configuration

39. A _________________is used by a print server as a buffer to hold data before it is sent to the printer. (2marks)
A. queue
B. spool
C. hub
D. medium

40. You are setting up a printer pool on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2. The printer pool contains three identical print devices. You open the Properties dialog box for the printer and select the Enable Printer Pooling option on the Ports tab. Which of the following steps must you perform next? (2 marks)
A. Configure the LPT1 port to support three printers.
B. Select or create the ports mapped to the three printers.
C. On the Device Settings tab, configure the installable options to support two additional print devices.
D. On the Advanced tab, configure the priority for each print device so that printing is distributed among the three print devices.

41. Which of the following types of server virtualisation provides the best performance for high-traffic servers in production environments? (2marks)
A. Type I virtualization
B. Type II virtualization
C. Presentation virtualization
D. RemoteApp

42. Which of the following Hyper-V features is not required to make it possible for a VM to function with a minimum RAM value that is lower than the startup RAM value? (2 marks)
A. Smart paging
B. Dynamic Memory
C. Memory Weight
D. Guest Integration Services

43. When you install the Hyper-V role on a server running Windows Server 2012 R2, the instance of the OS on which you installed the role is converted to what system element? (2 marks)
A. The hypervisor
B. The Virtual Machine Monitor
C. The parent partition
D. A child partition

44. What is the name of the database that keeps track of a huge amount of stuff and gives us a centralized way to manage all our network machine, users, and resources?
A. Forest
B. Active Directory
C. Domain controller
D. Tree

45. Which of the following is NOT a part of active directory structure?
A. Organisational Unit
B. Group policy
C. Domain
D. Tree

46. A domain controller provides _______________ to ensure that no two domains are created with the same name in the same forest.
A. User account provisioning
B. Resource access processing
C. Database Replication
D. Domain Naming Master

47. Which RAID should you apply if you have a machine with two hard disk and you add an extra 100 GB hard disk for a specific Client-Server application to run on, because the application gets very slow returning query data? You want to have the fastest possible access for the Client-Server App to the HDD’s. (2 marks)
A. RAID0
B. RAID1
C. RAID5
D. RAID2

48. How can you assign an application to one processor exclusively? (2 marks)
A. Right click on application executable, select properties and select assign processor
B. Right click on application process in Task Manager, select Set Affinity, and select the appropriate processor
C. Open Task Manager, chose options from task bar, select processor and assign processes to appropriate processor
D. Open Task Manager, chose Performance, chose view all processors, assign processes to appropriate processor

49. How can you recreate the PTR record in your Windows 2000 DNS server from you Windows 2000 client? (2 marks)
A. Run ipconfig /registerdns from the client
B. Run ipconfig all /registerdns from the DNS server
C. Start the DNS Dynamic service on your client computer
D. Create a host file with the #DYNAMIC command on the client computer

50. Which of this is NOT a good trick for improving performance? (2 marks)
A. Minimise FTP user isolation.
B. Use ISAPI extensions instead of ISAPI filters.
C. Set up remote virtual directories.
D. Keep websites and FTP servers on different machines.

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