TUESDAY: 5 December 2023. Morning Paper. Time Allowed: 2 hours.
This paper is made up of fifty (50) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. Each question is allocated two (2) marks. Do NOT write anything on this paper.
1. Identify a term used to describe a group of customers who share common characteristics and buying habits.
A. Market segment
B. Market trend
C. Market monopoly
D. Market saturation (2 marks)
2. Which of the following statements BEST describe demand from a marketer’s view?
A. States of felt deprivation
B. Needs shaped by culture
C. Wants backed by buying power
D. Combination of commodities (2 marks)
3. Which term is used to explain the aspect of dividing the market into segments based on income and occupation?
A. Departmental
B. Intermediation
C. Psychographic
D. Demographic (2 marks)
4. Select a value that a business could aim to gain from its customer.
A. Quality products
B. Efficient services
C. Brand loyalty
D. Customer needs (2 marks)
5. Choose an element of the marketing mix that affects perception of customers’ value of a product.
A. Price
B. Place
C. Promotion
D. Profit (2 marks)
6. Identify a purpose of ‘promotion’ as an element of the marketing-mix.
A. Enhance product accessibility
B. Promote product affordability
C. Enhance product features
D. Increase product recognition (2 marks)
7. Choose a term used for a set of buyers sharing common needs that a market decides to serve.
A. Prestige product
B. Market demand
C. Target market
D. Product identity (2 marks)
8. Which of the following gives a description of marketing mix?
A. Variables marketers desire to establish
B. Uncontrollable marketing variables
C. Controllable tools to influence demand
D. Variables established by the market (2 marks)
9. Identify the term used for a set of product lines and items a seller offers for sale.
A. Product feature
B. Product mix
C. Product invention
D. Product concept (2 marks)
10. Which of the following describes product positioning?
A. Products attributes in the market
B. A strategy for market feature
C. Product’s ability to compete
D. Specific concept about a product (2 marks)
11. Choose from the following statements the meaning of the term “market segmentation”.
A. Division of products to effectively serve the market
B. Division of market into smaller homogeneous sub-units
C. Charging different prices for different business products
D. Choosing a profitable and attractive market to serve (2 marks)
12. Identify the term that explains a list of all the expenses planned for marketing.
A. Financial plan
B. Business plan
C. Marketing statement
D. Marketing budget (2 marks)
13. Which of the following refers to the use of personality traits to segment the market?
A. Psychographic
B. Demographic
C. Behavioural
D. Sociological (2 marks)
14. Which of the following influences group buyer’s behaviour?
A. Physiological needs
B. Esteem needs
C. Security needs
D. Role needs (2 marks)
15. Which of the following involves designing a marketing mix strategy?
A. Market positioning
B. Marketing plan
C. Price reduction
D. Price decisions (2 marks)
16. Choose the set of tactical marketing tools a firm uses to get response from its target market.
A. Product, price. profit and promotion
B. Position, place, preference and price
C. Product, price, place and promotion
D. Place, price, location and product (2 marks)
17. Which of the following should be considered while determining the distribution strategy to adopt?
A. Customer awareness
B. Product accessibility
C. Product design
D. Competitors price (2 marks)
18. Identify a situation that could make a marketer adopt the production concept.
A. Where customer favours quality products
B. When demand of the product exceeds supply
C. When it is desirable to consider community needs
D. Where competitors prices are higher (2 marks)
19. Choose a barrier to effective implementation of a marketing plan.
A. Failure to conduct mass marketing
B. Use of only one promotion method
C. Failure to monitor marketing results
D. Failure to set a high price of products (2 marks)
20. Which of the following is an objective of training customer service staff?
A. Easy recruitment and maintenance of the job
B. Eliminate the need of hiring internal staff
C. Empower them to deal with customer issues
D. Ensure management positions are filled (2 marks)
21. Which of the following is a principle of effective complaints handling?
A. Acknowledge and address it
B. Widely share the complaint
C. Handle with subjectivity
D. Always escalate to management (2 marks)
22. Which of the following distinguishes a two-way communication process from one-way communication process?
A. Presence of a receiver
B. Multiple messages are sent
C. Presence of feedback
D. Presence of a channel (2 marks)
23. Choose the benefit of implementing customer-managed relationships.
A. Consumer diversification
B. Customer replacement
C. Customer loyalty
D. Customer transfers (2 marks)
24. Which of the following describes the marketing concept?
A. Marketing department organised to sell products
B. Business that produces technically efficient products
C. Business producing environmental friendly products
D. A business organised to satisfy customer needs (2 marks)
25. Choose the reason for doing a follow up after the sale of a product.
A. Clarify customer goal of buying
B. Establish customer satisfaction
C. Establish the business opportunity
D. Establish the channel used (2 marks)
26. Identify the term that describes the extent to which a product perceived performance meets the buyer’s expectation.
A. Customer relationship
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Customer behaviour
D. Customer perception (2 marks)
27. Which of the following element is the initiator of a communication process?
A. Message
B. Receiver
C. Sender
D. Channel
(2 marks)
28. Select a disadvantage of oral communication from the following:
A. Lacks instant feedback
B. Is prone to distortion
C. Takes time to compose
D. It is complex and detailed (2 marks)
29. Identify the type of barrier which could arise due to the use of jargons in communication.
A. Technical barriers
B. Mechanical barriers
C. Psychological barriers
D. Semantic barriers (2 marks)
30. Identify an advantage of writing a reference in a business letter.
A. Identifies the number of receivers
B. Identifies the number of letters sent
C. Indicates the source of information
D. Helps to trace the letter at a later date (2 marks)
31. Identify a measure that the chairperson could take to control a meeting.
A. Clarifying contributions from members
B. Summarising member’s contributions
C. Ensuring adherence to the agenda
D. Ensure members have copies of minutes (2 marks)
32. Choose from the following, a factor that could hinder effective listening.
A. Varying voice pitch
B. Making eye contact
C. Premature evaluation
D. Asking open questions (2 marks)
33. Select a demerit of written communication.
A. Lacks verification
B. Easily distorted
C. Lack of flexibility
D. Has legal validity (2 marks)
34. Which of the following strategy could be used by a speaker to manage stage flight?
A. Avoid presenting to an unfriendly audience
B. Adequate knowledge of facts of presentation
C. Stand at one point to conceal nervousness
D. Avoid maintaining eye-contact with the audience (2 marks)
35. Select an example of informal communication in an organisation.
A. Rumors
B. Games
C. Teams
D. Debates (2 marks)
36. Which of the following describes the position of a receiver in active listening?
A. Selective understanding
B. Satisfying the speaker
C. Relates words meaningfully
D. No obligation to understand (2 marks)
37. Which of the following is an example of a psychological barrier to communication?
A. Language
B. Regulations
C. Wrong channel
D. Pre-occupation (2 marks)
38. Which of the following term refers to space as a- form of non-verbal communication?
A. Kinesics
B. Reflex
C. Pitch
D. Proxemics (2 marks)
39. Which of the following is a feature of grapevine communication?
A. Not controlled by management
B. Characterised by inflexibility
C. Has documentary evidence
D. Conveys original information (2 marks)
40. The following are techniques that could be used during a presentation.
(i) Use of illustrations
(ii) Expert testimonies
(iii) Rehearsing thoroughly
(iv) Stating objectives
(v) Use of statistics
(vi) Outlining parts of the speech
(vii) Audience involvement
Which of the following set represents techniques that could be used to maintain a high level of interest by the audience?
A. (i), (ii), (v), (vii)
B. (ii), (iii), (v), (vii)
C. (i), (iv), (v), (vii)
D. (iii), (iv), (v), (vii) (2 marks)
41. Identify the last stage in report writing.
A. Analysing the report
B. Interpreting the report
C. Drawing conclusions
D. Author’s recommendation (2 marks)
42. Which of the following is an advantage of structured interviews?
A. Enhances consistency across candidates
B. Allows flexibility in responding to questions
C. Helps assess clarity of thought of candidate
D. Allows assessing a candidate’s interaction (2 marks)
43. Which of the following represents roles performed by an interviewer?
A. Questioning, commanding and presenting
B. Listening, questioning and training
C. Probing, listening and training
D. Questioning, probing and listening (2 marks)
44. Which of the following is a role of the chairperson in a meeting?
A. Follow the minutes as set out
B. Discourage questions by members
C. Ensure decisions are being recorded
D. Make apologies for absent members (2 marks)
45. Identify a limitation of using flip charts during a presentation.
A. Affected by break down in technology
B. Ineffective for a large group presentation
C. Take time to prepare and produce
D. Require a darkened room to present (2 marks)
46. Identify a reason why question and answer session should come at the end of a presentation.
A. Helps a speaker to anticipate likely questions
B. Allows enough time for the speaker to prepare
C. Helps audience assess the credibility of the speaker
D. Prevents unwanted interruptions by the audience (2 marks)
47. Which of the following represents a list of items to be discussed in a meeting?
A. Minutes
B. Agenda
C. Reference
D. Abstract (2 marks)
48. Select a document that is issued in advance to ensure members attend a meeting.
A. Agenda
B. Notice
C. Minutes
D. Memorandum (2 marks)
49. Identify a technique that could enhance interaction during an online meeting.
A. Keeping the chat pane open
B. Keeping meetings short
C. Keeping the webcams on
D. Avoiding background noise (2 marks)
50. Choose a method of protecting digital communication against cyberthreats.
A. Engage in file sharing services
B. Use of simple predictive passwords
C. Apply latest security updates
D. Use same password in the web (2 marks)
