PRINCIPLES OF MARKETING AND COMMUNICATION AUGUST 2022 PAST PAPER

TUESDAY: 2 August 2022.     Morning paper.     Time Allowed: 2 hours.
This paper is made up of fifty (50) Multiple Choice Questions. Answer ALL the questions by indicating the letter (A, B, C or D) that represents the correct answer. Do NOT write anything on this paper.

1. What is the name given to a set of marketing tools that a firm uses to implement its marketing strategy?
A. Marketing mix
B. Promotion mix
C. Product mix
D. Marketing effort    (2 marks)

2. Which of the following strategies would be the MOST appropriate to use to increase customer satisfaction?
A. Reducing the variety of services offered
B. Lowering prices
C. Demarketing
D. Limiting customer experiences with a brand   (2 marks)

3. Which is the final step in the marketing process?
A. Creating customer loyalty
B. Understanding the market place
C. Capturing value from customers
D. Creating customer lifetime value    (2 marks)

4. What is the name given to a set of benefits that a company promises to customers to satisfy their needs?
A. Value proposition
B. Demand satisfaction
C. Need proposition
D. Market offering    (2 marks)

5. Which of the following is NOT a type of marketing concept?
A. The societal marketing concept
B. The supplier concept
C. The selling concept
D. The production concept   (2 marks)

6. What is the MAIN aim of the marketing process?
A. Profit making
B. Production
C. Satisfaction of customer needs
D. Selling products     (2 marks)

7. The following are types of interviews EXCEPT?
A. Semi-structural
B. Unstructured
C. Oral presentation
D. Structured    (2 marks)

8. Which of the following is NOT part of the planning process for interviews?
A. Defining the purpose of the interview
B. Identifying areas of inquiry
C. Anticipating possible answers to questions
D. Devising ways to trick the interviewer     (2 marks)

9. Which of the following MUST be avoided in a presentation?
A. Clear voice
B. Proper grammar
C. Complex words
D. Short sentences    (2 marks)

10. What could a presenter use to break monotony in a speech?
A. Low voice
B. Sad story
C. Constant tone
D. Humour   (2 marks)

11. Which statement gives the BEST description of the importance of marketing?
A. Selling goods and services
B. Raising the standard of living of the people
C. Converting latent demand into effective demand
D. Solving business marketing problems    (2 marks)

12. Which statement explains the micro-environment of any firm?
A. Marketing forces that are beyond the firm’s control
B. Marketing forces close to the firm
C. Marketing forces with a positive effect to the firm
D. Marketing forces which are difficult to analyse    (2 marks)

13. Which of the following constitutes the macro-environment of the firm?
A. Customers
B. Suppliers
C. Technology
D. Competitors     (2 marks)

14. Which statement gives the BEST definition of marketing?
A. Getting potential customers to be interested in products and services
B. Selling and advertising in the markets
C. Process of providing goods and services
D. Adding value to customers’ purchasing     (2 marks)

15. The following are components of a marketing plan EXCEPT?
A. Executive summary
B. Financial statements
C. Business objectives
D. The competitors    (2 marks)

16. Which statement describes the production concept?
A. Consumers will favour the products that are of high value
B. Consumers will favour the products that are available and highly affordable
C. Consumers will favour products that have direct distribution
D. Consumers will favour the products that are produced locally    (2 marks)

17. Which of the following elements refers to how a company gets its products or services to their customers?
A. Promotion
B. People
C. Place
D. Price   (2 marks)

18. Which statement gives the BEST description of formal communication?
A. Flow of communication through the established channel of an organisation
B. Flow of communication through the media channels of communication
C. Flow of communication through the social networks of the organisation
D. Flow of communication from the top management of the organisation    (2 marks)

19. Which of the forums below facilitate the formal communication orally?
A. Radio presentations
B. Video conferencing
C. Television presentations
D. Performance reviews     (2 marks)

20. Select an example of informal communication in an organisation.
A. Rumours
B. Games
C. Team building
D. Debates     (2 marks)

21. Which statement best defines psychographic segmentation?
A. Breaking down customer groups according to location
B. Breaking down customer groups according to demographics
C. Breaking down customer groups according to beliefs
D. Breaking down customer groups according to disposable income    (2 marks)

22. Which of the following is NOT a common challenge in creating a market plan?
A. Setting goals
B. Determining the budget
C. Inaccuracy in projections
D. Identification of competitors     (2 marks)

23. Which is the BEST description of customer orientation?
A. Understanding customers and creating solutions to meet customer needs
B. Understanding customers and providing a valued buying environment
C. Understanding customers and creating quality valued relationships
D. Understanding customers and providing the distribution benefits   (2 marks)

24. Which of the following is not a method of speech delivery?
A. Memorised
B. Manuscript
C. Informal presentation
D. Impromptu    (2 marks)

25. ______________is the originator of the idea of the message in the communication channel.
A. Manager
B. Supervisor
C. Sender
D. Team leader    (2 marks)

26. Which of the following describes the means through which communication in an organisation flows to the receiver?
A. Memo
B. Circular
C. Letter
D. Channel    (2 marks)

27. The following statements explain the limitation of audio teleconferencing EXCEPT?
A. Lack of opportunity to see the other person
B. Lack of opportunity to see the non-verbal cues
C. Lack of opportunity to show visual presentations
D. Lack of clarity and wide geographical coverage     (2 marks)

28. Which of the following outlines the content of a fourth coming meeting?
A. Minutes
B. Memorandum
C. Circular
D. Agenda     (2 marks)

29. Select the item that is regarded as the official record of the proceedings of a meeting.
A. Reports
B. Executive summary
C. Minutes
D. Reviews    (2 marks)

30. Which of the following is the role of a rapporteur in a conference?
A. To organise and plan for the conference
B. To make announcements in a conference
C. To provide guidance in a conference
D. To prepare and present a precise summary of view points    (2 marks)

31. What is the main purpose of business writing?
A. Advise
B. Acknowledge
C. Record
D. Regulate    (2 marks)

32. Which of the following statement describe active listening?
A. Paying attention but selective in understanding
B. Lending an ear for the satisfaction of the speaker
C. Hearing words and relating them meaningfully
D. Listening without real obligation to understand the message    (2 marks)

33. Select the aim of paraphrasing when engaging in oral communication.
A. Verify the accuracy of the message
B. Verify the accuracy of the listener’s understanding
C. Verify the understanding of the speaker
D. Verify the accuracy of the topic    (2 marks)

34. Choose the most unlikely way of listening to an angry customer
A. Listen to please the customer
B. Offer immediate solution to the problem
C. Be assertive and explain the situation
D. Calm the customer and explain the policy     (2 marks)

35. Which statement below states an objective of business telephone conversations?
A. Chat about personal issues
B. To expose business weaknesses
C. Conveying the message and creating a good image
D. Boast about the growth of the business     (2 marks)

36. Which of the following is NOT a function of middlemen in the distribution channel?
A. Bringing bulk orders
B. Transactional efficiency
C. Specialisation
D. Giving discounts     (2 marks)

37. Choose the factor that is NOT considered when selecting the advertising media.
A. Reach
B. Brand
C. Cost
D. Frequency    (2 marks)

38. Which of the following statement explains the meaning of product diversification?
A. Technological development in the process of production
B. The idea of simplifying the production process of a product
C. The addition of a new product to the existing product or modification of existing products
D. Eliminating existing products    (2 marks)

39. Choose the best meaning of intangibility of service.
A. It cannot be examined but it can be experienced
B. It can be separated from the provider offering the service
C. The supply cannot be matched with the demand
D. Quality of service depends on the person offering the service    (2 marks)

40. Which statement describes strategic market planning?
A. Planning that is a short-term approach and concerns day to day marketing activities
B. Planning that considers individual components of the marketing mix
C. Planning that takes a long-term approach and broad marketing activities
D. Planning that takes an informal approach to marketing activities     (2 marks)

41. Which of the following describes an executive meeting?
A. Meetings where participants are consulted
B. Meetings where decisions are made by those with authority
C. Meetings where annual reports are presented
D. Meetings where information on new policies is shared    (2 marks)

42. Which of the following is not a component of a business report?
A. Recommendations
B. Introduction
C. Summary
D. Proposed solution     (2 marks)

43. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of societal marketing concept?
A. Human welfare
B. Consumer satisfaction
C. Competitive advertising
D. Organisational profits    (2 marks)

44. Monopoly is that situation of the market where ______________________.
A. there are large number of sellers of identical products
B. there are a few firms in the market for differentiated products
C. one firm sells products in a market which has a close substitute
D. one firm controls the supply of a commodity with no close substitute    (2 marks)

45. Which of the following describes the main aim of brand labels?
A. To explain the various uses of a product
B. To describe the product quality features
C. To popularise the brand name of a product
D. To give emphasis to standards or grading     (2 marks)

46. Identify the first step in new-product development process.
A. Idea screening
B. Concept development and testing
C. Idea generation
D. Market strategy development     (2 marks)

47. Which of the following is NOT a geographical pricing strategy?
A. Uniform-delivered pricing
B. Zone pricing
C. Product bundle pricing
D. Basing points pricing    (2 marks)

48. Which of the following is NOT a marketing research process?
A. Defining the problem
B. Segmentation of the market
C. Defining the research plan
D. Reporting the findings    (2 marks)

49. Which of the following statement give the BEST definition of a market segment?
A. Dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who require separate products
B. Evaluating each market to assess its attractiveness and select the one to enter
C. Differentiating the market offering to create superior customer value
D. A group of consumers who respond in a similar way to marketing efforts    (2 marks)

50. Which of the following statement gives the best description of consumer market?
A. Individuals that buy goods and services in a differentiated market for consumption
B. Individuals and households that buy goods and services for personal consumption
C. Individuals and households that buy durable household goods for final consumption
D. Individuals that buy goods and services from international markets for consumption    (2 marks)

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