MONDAY: 4 April 2022. Afternoon paper. Time Allowed: 3 hours.
Answer ALL questions. Each question is allocated one (1) mark.
1. A ________________ links the sender to the receiver.
(a) Feedback.
(b) Channel.
(c) Pipe.
(d) Communication. (1 mark)
2. The _________________ in the use of words might be a barrier to effective communication.
(a) Distortion.
(b) Disturbance.
(c) Discrimination.
(d) Disorder. (1 mark)
3. Communication without words is known as__________________________.
(a) Object communication.
(b) Written communication
(c) Non-verbal communication.
(d) Oral communication. (1 mark)
4. Which of the following is not included in the communication cycle?
(a) Sender.
(b) Message.
(c) Receiver.
(d) Programming. (1 mark)
5. _____________________ is the person who transmits the message.
(a) Feedback.
(b) Channel.
(c) Sender.
(d) Receiver. (1 mark)
6. Interference to communication is known as______________________________.
(a) Sender.
(b) Receiver.
(c) Barrier.
(d) Channel. (1 mark)
7. Pitch, loudness, duration, intonation and tempo of communication is referred to as___________________.
(a) Touches.
(b) Prosody.
(c) Gestures.
(d) Haptics. (1 mark)
8. Complaint letters are also referred to as___________________________.
(a) Persuasive letters.
(b) Claim letters. (c) Formal letters.
(d) Sales letters. (1 mark)
9. Communication that takes place between members of the same organisation is called_____________________.
(a) External communication.
(b) Formal communication.
(c) Information communication.
(d) Internal communication. (1 mark)
10. Which of the following writing styles is suitable for a memo?
(a) Informal.
(b) Formal.
(c) Neutral.
(d) Impersonal. (1 mark)
11. Communication is part of ________________________ skills for managers in an organisation.
(a) Soft.
(b) Hard.
(c) Neutral.
(d) Managerial. (1 mark)
12. ___________________ is the response to a sender’s message.
(a) Channel.
(b) Relay.
(c) Distortion.
(d) Feedback. (1 mark)
13. A _____________________ context highlights the similarity of backgrounds between the receiver and the sender.
(a) Chronological.
(b) Cultural.
(c) Political.
(d) Physical. (1 mark)
14. Dress code is an example of __________________________________ communication.
(a) Verbal.
(b) Non-verbal.
(c) Political.
(d) Physical. (1 mark)
15. A letter that announces some information as message to large number of people at a time is called____________?
(a) Notice.
(b) Circular.
(c) Memo.
(d) Letter. (1 mark)
16. Oral communication concentrates on _______________________________?
(a) Body language.
(b) Language and tone of voice.
(c) Facial expression.
(d) Listening and hearing. (1 mark)
17. Visual communication depends on the following factors:
(a) Signs, symbols and pictures.
(b) Text messages.
(c) Posture.
(d) Body language. (1 mark)
18. ___________________________ is the final step in the communication cycle.
(a) Encoding. (b) Decoding.
(c) Feedback.
(d) Receiving. (1 mark)
19. Which of the following is an example of oral communication?
(a) Newspapers.
(b) Letters.
(c) Phone calls.
(d) E-mail. (1 mark)
20. Nodding your head in agreement is an example of _______________________________.
(a) Expression.
(b) Posture.
(c) Body language.
(d) Para language. (1 mark)
21. Orders and directives are associated with:
(a) Downward communication.
(b) Upward communication.
(c) Diagonal communication.
(d) Horizontal communication. (1 mark)
22. Receiving a sales order can be classified as:
(a) Formal communication.
(b) Informal communication.
(c) Horizontal communication.
(d) Vertical communication. (1 mark)
23. The writer of a good business letter must _________________________________ in the writing.
(a) Be sincere.
(b) Be humorous.
(c) Be serious.
(d) Be formal. (1 mark)
24. Simplicity in writing means:
(a) Use of simple words.
(b) Use of simple sentences.
(c) Use of simple tenses.
(d) All of the above. (1 mark)
25. A memorandum is intended for _______________________________ use.
(a) Internal.
(b) External
(c) Formal.
(d) Informal. (1 mark)
26. Communication is a ____________________________________________.
(a) One-way process.
(b) Two-way process.
(c) Three-way process.
(d) Four-way process. (1 mark)
27. A collection letter is associated with ______________________________.
(a) Debtors.
(b) Creditors.
(c) Company.
(d) Customers. (1 mark)
28. ________________________________ refers to the special language of a professional.
(a) Jargon.
(b) Expression.
(c) Colloquial.
(d) Suggestion. (1 mark)
29. ______________________________ is the main part of a report.
(a) Conclusion.
(b) Recommendations.
(c) Description.
(d) References. (1 mark)
30. The most important part of an official letter is the _______________________________.
(a) The heading.
(b) Body of the letter.
(c) Date.
(d) Post script. (1 mark)
31. The process of turning thoughts into communication is referred to as:
(a) Encoding.
(b) Response.
(c) Decoding.
(d) Feedback. (1 mark)
32. Minutes that describe in details what is discussed during a meeting are called______________________.
(a) Narrative.
(b) Resolution.
(c) Formal.
(d) Informal. (1 mark)
33. Which of the following is not a type of interview?
(a) Structured.
(b) Semi-structured.
(c) Formal.
(d) Unstructured. (1 mark)
34. Which of the following is not advised when planning the question order of a structured interview?
(a) Be wary of asking an earlier question that alter the salience of later questions.
(b) Expect some variation in the order in which questions are asked.
(c) Ask questions about sensitive and embarrassing issues last.
(d) Group the questions into logical organised sections. (1 mark)
35. Closed ended questions are those that:
(a) Have a fixed range of possible answers.
(b) Prevent respondents from allocating themselves to a category.
(c) Encourage detailed elaborate responses.
(d) Relate to the basic characteristics of respondents. (1 mark)
36. The acronym “CATI” stands for:
(a) Camera-activated telescopic interviewing.
(b) Computer-assisted telephone interview.
(c) Corrective anti-terrorist interview.
(d) Critical analysis of telepaths interview. (1 mark).
37. Why is it important for structured interviews to follow a standardised procedure.
(a) To increase validity as the interview can be adapted for each respondent.
(b) To increase reliability because all respondents receive same interview stimulus.
(c) To allow an in-depth exploration of topic.
(d) To make it easier for untrained interviewers to carry out complex surveys. (1 mark)
38. A show card:
(a) Prevents respondents from expressing opinions about a statement.
(b) Encourage discussion of sensitive personal information.
(c) Enables respondents to choose from a range of possible answers.
(d) Used by researchers to prevent their repots. (1 mark)
39. A filter question is one that:
(a) Ensures all respondents are asked all questions in the same order.
(b) Leaves a space for respondents to write long and detailed answers.
(c) Helps interviewer to avoid asking irrelevant questions.
(d) Allows supervisors to distinguish between good and ban interviewers.
40. Why prepare an interview guide before conducting semi-structured interviews?
(a) To ensure different interviewees will be comparable and relevant to research questions.
(b) To calculate statistical significance of results.
(c) To allow participants complete control of topics they discuss.
(d) To make the sample more representative. (1 mark)
41. The dimension of culture of people about unstructured and structured situations is classified as:
(a) Certainty follower.
(b) Uncertainty avoidance.
(c) Certainty non-avoidances.
(d) Uncertainty follower. (1 mark)
42. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviewing?
(a) Researchers spend less time and money on travelling.
(b) Some interviewees might not own a telephone.
(c) It is difficult to build rapport with interviewee.
(d) Interviewers cannot use visual cues such as show cards. (1 mark)
43. What are ethical judgements based on?
(a) Perception of the person judging.
(b) Universally recognised set of values and codes.
(c) Cultural beliefs.
(d) The code of rights. (1 mark)
44. Who determines whether behaviour is ethical?
(a) The professional body.
(b) The clients you care for.
(c) Someone in a managerial role.
(d) Your stakeholders. (1 mark)
45. Which of the following is a characteristic most looked for in ethical behaviour?
(a) Efficiency.
(b) Trustworthiness.
(c) Education.
(d) Able to receive feedback. (1 mark)
46. Which of the following is not a characteristic associated with ethical behaviour?
(a) Competence.
(b) Respectful.
(c) Cunning.
(d) Integrity. (1 mark)
47. What does integrity mean?
(a) Truthful and honest.
(b) Educated and of high standing.
(c) Competent and respectful.
(d) Truthful and astute. (1 mark)
48. What are ethics?
(a) Rules and regulations that guide professionalism.
(b) The quality of speaking the truth.
(c) The ability to do something successful or efficiently.
(d) Ability to accurately assess situations or people. (1 mark)
49. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ethical person?
(a) Honest.
(b) Plagiarist.
(c) Integrity.
(d) Accountable. (1 mark)
50. What is a code?
(a) A law that determines the guiding principles and wellbeing of service providers.
(b) A law that guides the expected behaviours and standards of healthcare.
(c) A guideline of rules and ways of acting within an industry to set a series of standards.
(d) System of rules which a particular industry recognises as regulating the action of its members.
51. What does ethics deal with?
(a) The wider community.
(b) Business.
(c) Right and wrong.
(d) Nothing. (1 mark)
52. An ________________________ is a problem, situation or opportunity requiring an individual group or organisation to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong.
(a) Crisis.
(b) Ethical issue.
(c) Indictment.
(d) Fraud. (1 mark)
53. What is meant by the phrase CSR?
(a) Corporate social responsibility.
(b) Company social responsibility.
(c) Corporate society responsibility.
(d) Company society responsibility. (1 mark)
54. ___________________ sets out the purpose and general direction for the organisation.
(a) Purpose statement.
(b) Mission statement.
(c) Vision statement.
(d) Profit statement. (1 mark)
55. To be successful, business ethics programs need to:
(a) Focus on personal opinions of employees.
(b) Be limited to senior executives.
(c) Educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and models of decision making.
(d) Promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions. (1 mark)
56. Most companies begin the process of establishing organizational ethics programs by developing.
(a) Ethics training programs.
(b) Codes of conduct.
(c) Ethics enforcement mechanisms.
(d) Hidden agendas. (1 mark)
57. Which factor affects ethical and unethical behavior?
(a) Ethical dilemma. (b) Diversity.
(c) Teamwork.
(d) Open communication. (1 mark)
58. Which of the following is an ethical issue:
(a) Education.
(b) Accounting practices.
(c) Environmental responsibility.
(d) Sexual harassment. (1 mark)
59. Publishing a wrong information in the internet is_____________________________.
(a) An issue of computer ethics.
(b) An issue of morality.
(c) An issue of computer equity.
(d) An issue of digital divide. (1 mark)
60. Which of the following techniques in business organisations and firms is used in protecting IT assets:
(a) Ethical hacking.
(b) Unethical hacking.
(c) Fixing bugs.
(d) Internal data breach. (1 mark)
61. _____________________________ is not a type of breach cyber-crime:
(a) Data theft.
(b) Installing antivirus for protection.
(c) Damage to data systems.
(d) Forgery. (1 mark)
62. The theory that advocates for belief in making discussions for the good of the people is known as____________?
(a) Utilitarianism.
(b) Teleology.
(c) Deontology.
(d) Egoism. (1 mark)
63. A presentation is a form of oral communication in which a person shares factual information with an audience that is ____________________________.
(a) Specific.
(b) Small.
(c) Large.
(d) Mixed. (1 mark)
64. The presenter acts as the:
(a) Delivery of the information.
(b) Medium of the information.
(c) Advocate of the information.
(d) Supporter of the information. (1 mark)
65. The three major elements of presentation do not include:
(a) An audience.
(b) Specific content.
(c) A presenter.
(d) Visual aids. (1 mark)
66. Which of the following is considered inappropriate when making a presentation?
(a) Reading out to the audience.
(b) Using visual aids.
(c) Using visual aids.
(d) Asking for feedback. (e) Speaking in a clear voice. (1 mark)
67. To select the content of your presentation you should consider the audience needs and _____________________?
(a) Your purpose.
(b) The time limit.
(c) Available material.
(d) To ask questions. (1 mark)
68. When giving a presentation infront of an audience, you should do all of the following except for______________.
(a) Speak loud and clear.
(b) Provide handout if needed.
(c) Dress professionally.
(d) Look at your screen no the audience. (1 mark)
69. The key to successful presentation is ______________________________.
(a) Practice.
(b) Preparation.
(c) Effort.
(d) Both (a) and (b). (1 mark)
70. A good presenter should;
(a) Be well groomed.
(b) Dress well.
(c) Speak clearly.
(d) All of the above. (1 mark)
71. To become more effective, you need to take control of:
(a) The material.
(b) The audience.
(c) Your behaviour.
(d) All of the above. (1 mark)
72. ________________________________ of a presentation is the most important part.
(a) Beginning.
(b) Middle.
(c) End.
(d) None of the above.
73. In the beginning, you should give firstly:
(a) Your introduction.
(b) Summary of a topic.
(c) Ask irrelevant questions.
(d) Ask further information. (1 mark)
74. All your information in a presentation should support your_________________________________.
(a) Purpose.
(b) Ideas.
(c) Topic.
(d) Merits. (1 mark)
75. A good presenter should:
(a) Sequence their ideas.
(b) Manage the time.
(c) Clear all the confusion.
(d) All of the above. (1 mark)
76. A conclusion should be:
(a) Detailed.
(b) Lengthy.
(c) Difficult words. (d) Specific key points. (1 mark)
77. A speech must advance______________________________________.
(a) Dishonesty.
(b) Negativity.
(c) Truth.
(d) Aggressiveness. (1 mark)
78. Positive gestures are body signals that make you look_________________________.
(a) Relaxed.
(b) Hurtful.
(c) Nervous.
(d) Arrogant. (1 mark)
79. We ran out of time and we were forced to _______________________________________ the meeting.
(a) Allocate.
(b) Address.
(c) Adjourn.
(d) All of the above. (1 mark)
80. If you have a _____________________ please wait until joseph has finished speaking.
(a) Commence.
(b) Comment.
(c) Formality.
(d) An answer. (1 mark)
81. The board members couldn’t come to a ____________________ so they had to hold a vote.
(a) Grievance.
(b) Designate.
(c) Consensus.
(d) Conclusion. (1 mark)
82. Eva was a way on business and could not attend the AGM therefore_____________________ was assigned.
(a) A show of hands.
(b) An apology.
(c) A proxy.
(d) An addendum. (1 mark)
83. In this _____________________________ the chairman thanked everyone for doing such a good job.
(a) Final agenda.
(b) Last ballot.
(c) Closing remarks.
(d) Entire speech. (1 mark)
84. Since everyone was so _______________________ we were able to finish the meeting early.
(a) Participant.
(b) Punctual.
(c) Confidential.
(d) Angry. (1 mark)
85. We will be discussing this year’s profits at the _________________________ next month.
(a) AOB.
(b) AGM.
(c) GAM.
(d) Proxy. (1 mark)
86. At the meeting, the Managing Director put forward _______________________ to eliminate part time positions. (a) An action.
(b) A caution.
(c) A motion.
(d) A vote. (1 mark)
87. Which of the following people would be unlikely to attend a formal meeting?
(a) Shareholders.
(b) Board members.
(c) Senior management.
(d) Junior management. (1 mark)
88. ___________________ is a list of items discussed in a meeting.
(a) Quorum.
(b) Financial reports.
(c) Agenda.
(d) Members’ names. (1 mark)
89. Individual and team meetings are one of the modes of _____________________________
(a) External communication.
(b) No communication.
(c) Internal communication.
(d) None of the above. (1 mark)
90. At the end of a meeting, it is most important to ensure that everyone is aware of__________________________.
(a) Who said most.
(b) Who said the least.
(c) Who is responsible for carrying out the decisions made.
(d) Who said nothing. (1 mark)
91. Meetings are convened to find out facts and _________________________________.
(a) Keep employees busy.
(b) Waste valuable time.
(c) Decrease information overload.
(d) Devise alternatives. (1 mark)
92. Internal communication can __________________________________ by providing better understanding of corporate goals.
(a) Increase productivity.
(b) Decrease morale.
(c) Increase confusion.
(d) All of the above. (1 mark)
93. The ______________________ is the tool that controls the meeting.
(a) Minutes.
(b) Feedback.
(c) Meeting agenda.
(d) Time sheet. (1 mark)
94. Stick to set timings for _________________________________.
(a) Closing the meeting.
(b) Warm up.
(c) Breaks.
(d) Each item on the meeting agenda. (1 mark)
95. RAM is placed on _____________________________________.
(a) Hard disk.
(b) Extension board.
(c) Motherboard. (d) USB. (1 mark)
96. Which of the following is not a web browser?
(a) Firefox.
(b) Facebook.
(c) Chrome.
(d) Safari. (1 mark)
97. URL stands for___________________________________________.
(a) Universal resource location.
(b) Universal response locator.
(c) Unified response location.
(d) Uniform resource locator. (1 mark)
98. Which of the following statement is correct?
(i) NKM stands for new knowledge network.
(ii) MOOCs are offline courses.
(iii) Param shivay is a super computer.
(iv) Clock rate of CPU is measured in gigabytes.
(a) (i) and (ii) only.
(b) (i) and (iii) only.
(c) (iii) and (iv) only.
(d) (ii) only. (1 mark)
99. Which are the major issues arising out of the growing reliance of information technology?
(i) Profitability.
(ii) Security threats.
(iii) Privacy concerns.
(a) (i) and (ii) only.
(b) (i) and (iii) only.
(c) (ii) and (iii) only.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii). (1 mark)
100. The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is:
(a) Address book.
(b) Address box.
(c) Message box.
(d) Message book. (1 mark)
